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BIBLE
FOR DUMMIES |
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Why
is Jesus Called "the Son of God"?
by Staff Writer |
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Question: I am
wondering why Jesus is called the Son of God. It makes it seem
like He is different than God, less than or under His Father, that He
didn’t exist at one time or that He was born at some point. There are
so many ways it can be misunderstood and used by people like the
Jehovah’s Witnesses. They use I John 5:5 where we are told that
it is important to believe that Jesus is the Son of God, but of course
they add their own peculiar meaning to that phrase. But what
really is that name intended to imply?
That is a great question. Let me give you a couple of
answers from people who’ve studied this very issue. First,
Illustrated Manners and Customs of the Bible explains that,
Five titles of Jesus reflect something significant of His person
and/or work. The name Jesus (which is identical with
Joshua and means "God is Savior") emphasizes His role as the
Savior of His people (Matt. 1:21). Christ is the New
Testament equivalent of Messiah, a Hebrew word meaning
"anointed one" (cf. Acts 4:27; 10:38). This title emphasized that
Jesus was divinely appointed to His mission, that He had an official
relationship to God the Father—that is, He had a job to do and a
role to discharge at the Father’s appointing.
Son of Man was the title used almost exclusively by Jesus
Himself (cf. Matt. 9:6; 10:23; 11:19). Some feel He used it because
it most clearly distinguished His Messiahship from the erroneous
ideas of His time.
The name Son of God was also applied to Jesus in an
official or messianic sense (cf. Matt. 4:3, 6; 16:16; Luke 22:70;
John 1:49). It emphasized that He was a Person of the triune
Godhead, supernaturally born as a human being.
Lord was alternately applied to Jesus as a simple title
(somewhat like "Mr."), a title of authority or ownership, or
(sometimes) an indication of His equality with God (e.g., Mark
12:36–37; Luke 2:11; Matt. 7:22).
Today Christians believe that Jesus is both God and man—i.e.,
that He has two distinct natures united "inconfusedly, unchangeably,
indivisibly, inseparably" in His one person (Chalcedonian Creed, a.d.
451).
Now, let me refer you to a question found at
www.bible.org: Question: What would the term "Son of God" have
meant to a 1st C., pious Jew?
The answer first lists all the references to "Son of
God" in the New Testament. You can find these by using any good
concordance. Then the author comments:
I think it is safe to say that in nearly every instance in the
New Testament, being the "Son of God" meant our Lord was the Christ,
the Messiah (see John 1:49; 11:27).
There are hints, however, that as the "Son of God," Jesus was
more than a mere man, a mere "son of David," who would sit on the
throne of His father, David. This is especially clear in the Gospel
of John, beginning in chapter 5. It also seems to be clear at the
trial of our Lord. When Jesus was asked by the priest if He was the
"Son of God," He admitted that He was, and was charged with
blasphemy–claiming to be God (see Matthew 16:63, 65, 68).
In the Old Testament, the coming Messiah, the descendant of
David, was to become God’s "son" (2 Samuel 7:12-14a; Psalm 2:7). To
be God’s "son" was to be the ruler God had appointed, of the line of
David. As Israel’s Messiah, Jesus was the "Son of God." But Jesus
further clarified the matter, demonstrating that He was indeed, God
manifested in the flesh, something John is eager for His readers to
grasp at the beginning of his Gospel (John 1:1-5, 9-14).
Thus, the first century Jew understood the term "the Son of God"
to mean "the Messiah." And with our Lord’s further claims (John 5,
8), they understood this term to mean that Jesus, as the "Son of
God" was not only the Messiah but God incarnate.
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DR. JOHN ANKERBERG'S RESPONSE TO CREATION QUESTIONS
Dr. John Ankerberg answers your
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Does Scientific Evidence Today Show
that God Created the Heavens and the Earth? And What Does the Bible Say
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Copyright 2006, Ankerberg Theological Research Institute
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